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Number theory

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patdunham | 16:09 Fri 24th Mar 2006 | Science
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The sum of the series 1 plus 1/1squared plus 1/(2squared) plus 1/(3squared) etc to infinity equals (Pi)squared divided by 6. Does anyone know the theoetical reason why this should be so?
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Don't know why, but i end up with one too many.


maybe it should start with 1/(1 squared) + 1/(2 squared) + 1/(3 squared) . . .


. . . divided by six? . . . facinating!

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