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Number theory

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patdunham | 16:43 Fri 24th Mar 2006 | Science
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Sorry, the recent question should have been that the series 1/(1squared) plus 1/(2squared) plus 1/(3squared) plus etc upto 1/(infinitysquared) equals (Pi)squared/6. Does anyone know anytheoretical answer why this should be?
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Avatar Image Gnu

Have a look at this page


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem


it gives plenty of info.

17:42 Fri 24th Mar 2006
Avatar Image patdunham
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Many thanks Gnu

23:23 Fri 24th Mar 2006

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