Bible

[Harry-Wragg]

2 Kings Chapter 19
Isaiah Chapter 37

Can any bible scholar tell me why these open with identical wording?

[Old_Geezer]

One was guilty of copying from the guy at the desk next to them.

[Old_Geezer]

As you may guess I'm no bible scholar but my guess would be that the bible, being a collection of writings that was put together, is likely to have parts that were difficult to put together and where there may have been dispute as to which book a particular text was from: and so at least in this case it was attributed to both? That sounds plausible to me.

[cupid04]

If you put this question in google it will give you the answer. Sorry, I cant do
links.

[jno]

bad editing, perhaps. The books of the bible weren't originally in a bible, they were separate preachings; editors gathered them together. Two different prophets may have recounted the same thing, and the same account was used twice; or maybe only one prophet said it but it was inadvertently used twice.

[mibn2cweus]

Two biblical accounts that actually agree . . . who've thunk?

[beso]

Oh my God. It must have been the work of the Lord Himself. There can be no other possible reason.

[joggerjayne]

Cut and Pasting oversight ?

[jno]

sounds like it to me, JJ, and of course in those days you couldn't just ctrl+z

[jomifl]

Because that is the way it is, It is all the 'truth' so that bit must be twicely truthful.

[tweaker]

Isaiah is split into 3 parts. cpts 1-39, 40-55, 55-66. Although I believe the syntax and word usage changes at cpt 37. Isaiah wrote 1-39 circa 8th century BCE so Isaiah wrote cpts in 2Kings too. Syntax and prose 100% the same.

[sandyRoe]

Didn't KIng James get writers in the 16th Century to re write it?