Oh, sorry, Waldo... I must have missed the fact that the original post was addressed solely to you. But since we're in it, what's "lazy and wrong" about my observation? While you're at it, perhaps you could explain whose view point of right or wrong gets to prevail if there's a disagreement? The guy with the biggest stick? Logic tells me that's what happens when the determination of right or wrong is individually decideable.
Actually, by the way, I have no interest in your choice of bands, but if someone does disagree with you, who becomes the arbiter?
Fact is, it's a simple matter to show that almost all codices of law have, as their foundational principles, religous teachings in use prior to the establishment of the law itself. This includes English Common Law, which became the basis for nearly all law in the western world.
While I agree in principal (I'll try not make a habit of it) with most of what JTP states regarding law requiring a "moral principle" from which the law descends, I'm forced to ask what is the "moral principle" to which atheists (or agnostics) adhere. What is it's foundation? Does it not equate or parallell the religious teachings prevalent in his/her surroundings? This applies to wizard69's observation since, in many cultures, rape, for example is permitted and not seen as a crime, since the personhood (woman) against which it's perpetrated is property only, so any such crime is against the owner of the property, not the woman. Where does the "sense of right or wrong we all have", come from? Evolutionary? Where is the evidence for that genetic mutation helping the species to survive?