ChatterBank0 min ago
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Even His foreknowledge of the resurrection could not soothe this separation.
Many conservative scholars believe that Jesus' very Spirit died in Hades, since Scripture teaches "He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that he himself might have first place in everything."
Colossians 1:15-18. This could get off the thread somewhat, but since you asked, II Corinthians 5:17 says the new believer is a new creation. That new creation has to be a new spirit within the believer, since it is certainly not the body that's new. The Greek for this passage infers an entirely new, not related to anything past, creation. Since Ha Massiach carried every sin ever comiited or ever would be, His very Spirit was tainted. The teaching (I reserve judgement on it) is reasonable, in accordance with Scriptures, that a new spirit and a new body came forth from the tomb early on that morning...
The Judas issue is another Davinci Code folderol, when all the facts are ascertained... in my opinion...
I apologize for the length of these posts. It is a difficult subject to explain in pithy sentences. Again, thanks for your interest...
A few points;
1. Since god is omnipotent, he knows everything
2. Since god is omnipotent, he created man full well knowing that he would fall
3. He must have wanted man to fall
4. Being omnipotent, why is any sacrifice required? This dude can do anything, but you're telling me the only way for him to save the people he knowingly created that way is to sacrifice himself? And he is perfect? What is the great beings obsession with sacrifice and blood? come on . . . that's just nonsense.
5. Why did he create sin if he as going to have to carry it all himself? A perfect being with ultimate foreknowledge of the event - I'd say that was a ball up.
6. If god has always been 3, and they are all 3 of them perfect, why are 3 separate entities required? i.e. if they are all perfect, why do they perform different functions? Why is god the senior perfect being?
The problem is, as I've stated before, is... you expect God to do and act the way you want Him to. I've a flash for you... there is a God, and you're not Him... but El D... He does love you beyond any comprehension...
In the same way this being could create a world free of sin if only it desired it. In the same way this being could create a world free of pain and suffering if only it desired it. God logically desired sin to enter the world - he created man as a flawed being knowing he would be tempted, he created lucifer knowing he would fall and tempt, he created the world knowing that jesus would supposedly have to die. After all, he could have created man as himself yes? A perfect being having the option to sin but being incapable of it. But no, instead he creates a being who is not only capable of it, but will knowingly perform it - what?
There are two choices remaining to a rational being considering the evidence before us - either god is a flawed being who desired all the evil we see in the world around us, or he does not exist. You see, your problem, and that of those like you, is that you are so blinded by the words you read, you never apply logic to the bigger picture.
PS I think you'll find that my 'turkey fence building' in other words experience in debating the existence of god, is just fine as shown by your inability to answer the points made in my post. Maybe you should have listened to good ol' Tuff Gunderson - you might have learnt a valuable lesson.
El D, I don't think that I agree with your reasoning. If God is omnipotent, He is capable of creating humankind and giving them free will. By your logic, ominpotence is constrained by the fact that an omipotent being could not bestow free will on one of its creations. That doesn't sound very omnipotent.
Having given free will to its creation, an omniscient being would know that those creations would use their freedom to turn away from it/Him/Her, that being the nature of freedom. Presumably the Christian argument is that the creation of sin and suffering as a result is was deemed worthwhile by God because we have freedom and because He can love us as independent creatures.
So, in your first post, items 1 and 2 make sense but items 3, 4 and 5 do not logically follow on. That's my understanding, anyway.
It seems that you are arguing that a God could create people with free will but could also pre-ordain their behaviour. A supreme being could logically only do this if they were also defining the rules of logic as they went along. For an omnipotent being that's not a problem but your argument implies that they would have to do this by virtue of the fact that they could do it (or, if I am omnipotent, if I permit free will for humans I am constraining my own omnipotence which is an impossibility due to my omnipotence).
I'm suggesting that a supreme being could choose to play according to certain rules without ceasing to be omnipotent. God could define free will for humankind to mean that He will choose to release them from his omnipotent will. I guess that He could change His mind if He felt like it but that doesn't mean that He has to. So, knowing that the creation of an independent human race would mean the creation of sin does not mean that He would desire humans to be sinful.
I like chocolate eclairs. They make me fat. I don't have to eat them. I am fat. However, I don't want to be fat.
There is a clear paradox over your concept of omnipotence: an omnipotent being can do anything; anything that occurs happens because they will it; because nothing can happen without them willing it they cannot bestow free will on anything outside of themself; because they cannot bestow free will on anything outside of themself, they're not omnipotent.
That's not to say that the Christian view of God makes any more sense. I don't believe that you can disprove the existence of God through logic any more than you can prove it.
This further means that yes, god could give man free will and release them from his omnipotent will, but the negative results of this would be desired by him because he had the option of giving them same but with no evil necessarily to follow.
I would rather avoid getting into questions over definition of omnipotence because as you rightly comment we will end up in discussions about heavy rocks which will achieve nothing.
Jesus is NOT God himself. He is God's son. Therefore the teaching of the Trinity is a false teaching. Jesus had a pre-human existence alongside his Father in heaven. Proverbs 8; 22-31 "22 �Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago. 23 From time indefinite I was installed, from the start, from times earlier than the earth. 24 When there were no watery deeps I was brought forth as with labor pains, when there were no springs heavily charged with water. 25 Before the mountains themselves had been settled down, ahead of the hills, I was brought forth as with labor pains, 26 when as yet he had not made the earth and the open spaces and the first part of the dust masses of the productive land. 27 When he prepared the heavens I was there; when he decreed a circle upon the face of the watery deep, 28 when he made firm the cloud masses above, when he caused the fountains of the watery deep to be strong, 29 when he set for the sea his decree that the waters themselves should not pass beyond his order, when he decreed the foundations of the earth, 30 then I came to be beside him as a master worker, and I came to be the one he was specially fond of day by day, I being glad before him all the time, 31 being glad at the productive land of his earth, and the things I was fond of were with the sons of men".
Jesus WAS talking/praying to his Father.