Quizzes & Puzzles6 mins ago
Contribution based JSA and Income based JSA
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can someone please explain the difference, apart from the disregards for contribution based, more along the lines of why the rate is the same for someone who has paid 30 years + contributions and someone over 25 who hasn't paid a penny and never worked a day in their lives? Just a simple explanation that does not focus on the other state hand outs like NHS etc that both claimants would recieve equally.
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.The Goverment decides what is a reasonable mount of money for a person to live on per week, say £60.
If you have paid sufficient NI, the NI office will pay you your £ 60.
If you haven't, then other Benefits departments will pay the £60, or contribute to it.
That way, YOU are receiving your £ 60, and the cost to the country is borne by a pot YOU have already paid into, or, it comes out of 'other pots' paid out by the Government.
If you have paid sufficient NI, the NI office will pay you your £ 60.
If you haven't, then other Benefits departments will pay the £60, or contribute to it.
That way, YOU are receiving your £ 60, and the cost to the country is borne by a pot YOU have already paid into, or, it comes out of 'other pots' paid out by the Government.
No, it was compulsory redundancy and as far as i am concerned it was compensation for losing my job, some people started work immedistely elsewhere and did not need to claim anything and kept their redundancy, plus their new salary. I don't expect to have to use that money after the amounts i have paid in over the past decades, that is one of my main beefs, the other ofr course is why someone with no contributions gets the same as myself, they may even live at home with parents but they still get the same and i have a 3 bed house to run!
So if I work 2 jobs (ie 1 full time and 1 part time)does that mean the contributions of both jobs are taken into account?
I ask because we have a guy in the garage who works 2 jobs and he told me it was true I said it can't be because when people retire a single person paying the correct amount of weeks contribution on say £200 a week would still get the same pension as someone on £400 a week.
Am I correct?
I ask because we have a guy in the garage who works 2 jobs and he told me it was true I said it can't be because when people retire a single person paying the correct amount of weeks contribution on say £200 a week would still get the same pension as someone on £400 a week.
Am I correct?
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But why does the government think someone living with their parents and playing on an XBox all day should get the same as someone running a 3 bed house and with 31 years contributions? Ho0w do they come to the conclusion that the 64 quid the 25 year old gets will be desperately needed for a new compuyer game and the 64 quid i get will fill a food cupboard?
As far as I can remember Dot, you get a higher rate of compulsory redundancy after a certain age which reflects that it may take you longer to get a job, of course, it may have all changed since I was last made redundant (7 years ago) and I was below that threashhold at the time - I was only kidding about my vast personal wealth btw.;o)
Why should you, who has recieved a redundancy payment receive exactly the same amount of JSA as someone who has worked for the same length of time but wi many different employers and who has received no redundancy payment? What about a self-employed person who has worked for 38 years? No redundancy payment when the work dries up eh?
Among the many rants you stated “we have all been let down and lied to, NI contributions have been a complete con” and “I assumed if I never worked again i would still be supported!!!” You have made assumptions and they are wrong, whose fault is that?
Why do you expect the Government to support you for the next God knows how long, when you have already said you have a private pension and have received a redundancy payment? Why can you not use those savings?
Why do you expect the Government to support you for the next God knows how long, when you have already said you have a private pension and have received a redundancy payment? Why can you not use those savings?
But self employed people pay a different class of contribution i know that for a fact, why should my redundancy be a consioderation? If i hadn't worked there for more than 2 years i wouldn;t have had any, but i would still have just 64.30 and the income based person would still have their 64.30. That's not the comparison i was making, i was asking in what way is the contribution based JSA different to the income based and noone has answered me
Oh I see, i have to subsidise a low JSA payment because I have savings and a pension, why is that right? i can only use the money once, if I ever need benefit again i wonl;t have it will i? the governemnt allows me savings, they encourage it, but at what stage in life would they be used? Now, whenh i should be supported on JSA, or when i retire?