A magistrate offered the ex wife 10% of house (occupied by spouse & gf) on the grounds "she hadn't contributed towards the house". Married for 6y, no children & wife sold her flat to put deposit on house, though the husband put house in his name.
Any ideas of how she can claim her fair share, at least 50%?
How much did each put in v. mortgage payments made by hubby I presume? See if you can work out a reasonable financial percentage each contributed, based on proper figures.
It would be easier to claim more if there were children and she had given up her earning capacity, and, therefore, contributory capacity, in order to care for them.
Just another thought, was anything drawn up at the time they bought seeing as she sold a valuable asset to contribute without any security of being on the title deeds?