Quizzes & Puzzles57 mins ago
Bretix Vote Demographics
I asked this on another thread but for the life of me I can't find it so will post it as a separate q. If it has been answered elsewhere please let me know.
Did we vote in the referendum as individuals, counties, constituency, separate nations (England sCotland etc)?
I thought we voted as individuals. If that is the case then how can any MP, whether at Westminster or any of the devolved governments, vote against triggering a50?
Surely even their conscience or what they believe is in the best interest of the country doesn't count for toffee??!
Did we vote in the referendum as individuals, counties, constituency, separate nations (England sCotland etc)?
I thought we voted as individuals. If that is the case then how can any MP, whether at Westminster or any of the devolved governments, vote against triggering a50?
Surely even their conscience or what they believe is in the best interest of the country doesn't count for toffee??!
Answers
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16 million voted against Leaving.
There was only a 4% difference between the winning and the losing vote.
So the Commons must vote to invoke, but that should not mean 100% of MPs must support it. If all MPs follow their constituents wishes, and vote accordingly, then the Commons will vote to invoke.
However, if MPs ignore their constituents, then there may be problems. My own MP was a very strong Remainer, but his constituency voted to Leave. He should vote Leave, but it remains to be seen if he does. Before the Referendum, two thirds of MPs were Remainers, so some may have difficulty voting against their own opinions.
There was only a 4% difference between the winning and the losing vote.
So the Commons must vote to invoke, but that should not mean 100% of MPs must support it. If all MPs follow their constituents wishes, and vote accordingly, then the Commons will vote to invoke.
However, if MPs ignore their constituents, then there may be problems. My own MP was a very strong Remainer, but his constituency voted to Leave. He should vote Leave, but it remains to be seen if he does. Before the Referendum, two thirds of MPs were Remainers, so some may have difficulty voting against their own opinions.
Here's a thought: People also vote individually for parties in parliamentary/government elections but in the end no election in living memory (I believe) has resulted in the balance of representatives among the different parties reflecting the numerical outcome/tally of votes. What is it that puts the EU referendum into a different category, dictating action in a black or white fashion based on a 4% difference between the two responses ? In every case, participation is way below 100%. Attempts to distribute seats more equitably in the UK have consistently come to nothing because there is very strong opposition to that foreign concept. Where does the much vaunted common sense come into all of this ?
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